MrMorden said:
We're not talking about punishment for a crime here. We're talking about loss of a constitutional right permanently AFTER the punishment (incarceration, etc) is over. If that's okay, then why do we only do that for the 2nd Amendment? Why don't they lose their rights to free speech, free exercise of religion, freedom of association, freedom from unreasonable search and seizure, etc?
They also lose the right to vote, which is fundamental to keeping all those other rights you mentioned, so the actual effect runs much deeper. But why is jail the only acceptable punishment for a crime? The loss of that right after JAIL is PART of the punishment when you were sentenced. Jail and Punishment cannot be used interchangeably. There are other punishments outside of jail.
If we can deny a person ALL of their rights by throwing them in jail, or even killing them, why can we not instead choose to deny them part of their rights as punishment for a crime? Why does it have to be all or nothing? No one has put forth any reason why jail or the death penalty are the only acceptable punishments, that other punishments, like loss of only your 2A rights, cannot be prescribed in addition to or instead of jail.
I'm not asking whether it's an effective punishment, only rather whether a society has a right to institute that punishment. In my view, if we're allowed to take away all of a criminal's rights, we have the right to take away less than all of them.