Does SCOTUS have the power to declare the Bill of Rights null and void due to a "compelling government interest"?
https://supreme.justia.com/cases/federal/us/372/144/case.htmlWhile it confirms citizenship rights, plainly there are imperative obligations of citizenship performance of which Congress in the exercise of its powers may constitutionally exact. One of the most important of these is to serve the country in time of war and national emergency. The powers of Congress to require military service for the common defense are broad and far-reaching, for, while the Constitution protects against invasions of individual rights, it is not a suicide pact. Similarly, Congress has broad power under the Necessary and Proper Clause to enact legislation for the regulation of foreign affairs. Latitude in this area is necessary to ensure effectuation of this indispensable function of government.
Article I Section 8 said:The Congress shall have Power ... To make all Laws which shall be necessary and proper for carrying into Execution the foregoing Powers, and all other Powers vested by this Constitution in the Government of the United States, or in any Department or Officer thereof.
This. Also, thanks for the info, MP.SCOTUS doesn't even have the authority to interpret the constitution, much less declare parts of it void. they illegitimately gave themselves that authority not long after the constitution was signed (marbury vs madison).
government disregarding the law and over-reaching for power didn't just begin recently. it has been their very nature from the beginning.